I hope everyone is having a great morning. My question here is about how the integrals were set up.
Question: Find $c$ if $f_{X,Y}(x,y) = cxy$ for $X,Y$ defined over the triangle whose vertices are the points $(0,0),(0,1)$ and$ (1,1)$.
Solution: Solve for $\int_0^1 \int_0^y (cxy)dxdy= 1 \Rightarrow c = 8$
My question: We are given points where $X$ and $Y$ are defined. $(0,0),(0,1),(1,1)$. Why was the integrals set up as $\int_0^1 \int_0^y$ and not $\int_0^1 \int_0^1$? we know both $x$ and $y$ are defined under $0-1$. Thank you in advance.