Mine is a very generic question. I believe the answer is yes for a triangle. I don't have a formal proof, just an image in my head.
Is it also true for a higher $n$-gon? Does anyone know of a theorem?
EDIT (following comments): The answer is NO for $n>3$. This is because the lengths of the sides of an $n$-gon do no specify its angles, for $n>3$. E.g., consider the square and the rhombus having the same sides.
FOLLOW-UP question: Why is it this so? What is special about $n=3$, that changes for higher $n$.
General guess to an answer: I am a physicist, so let me use a physicist's argument. The shape of an $n$-gon is specified by its $n$ sides and $n$ angles. That's $2n$ parameters. Somehow, for $n=3$, there are sufficient constraints such that all 3 angles are determined by the 3 sides. For higher $n$, that is not the case, so that we are left with extra parameters, and can get a range of shapes. But why is this so? Someone please fill in the blanks.
I am a physicistFor an informal argument, consider that $n$ points in the 2D plane have $2n$ degrees of freedom. But the "shape" of a polygon is invariant with respect to translations, rotations and reflections, so you are left with $2n-3$ degrees of freedom that define the "shape". In the case of the triangle, that means that the $3$ sides are enough, but the same no longer holds true for $n \gt 3,$. – dxiv Dec 08 '17 at 19:49