Text I am reading states:
Let $S$ be a compact set. Suppose $p \notin S$. For each point $q \in S$, consider an open neighborhood $W_q$ of radius less than half $d(p, q)$. Such a system of open neighborhoods covers $S$ because $q \in W_q$ for each $q \in S$. Since $S$ is compact, there are finitely many points $q_1 , q_2 , . . . , q_n$ in S such that $$S\subseteq \cup^n_{i=1} W_{q_i} = W.$$
So far so good, I understand everything clearly.
Now let $q^∗$ be the point in $\{q_1 , . . . , q_n\}$ closest to $p$ and let $V_{q^*}$ be a neighborhood of $p$ with radius less than half $d(p, q^∗ )$. Then $V_{q^I}$ is a neighborhood of $p$ that does not intersect $W$.
First problem: This is the first and only mentioning of $V_{q^I}$ in the text to follow. Perhaps it is a mistake and the author meant $V_{q^*}$. We continue
Hence $V_{q^*}\subset \bar S$, so $p$ is an interior point of $\bar S$. Hence, if there is a sequence $s_n$ of points in $S$ converging to $p$, we must have $p \in S$. So $S$ is closed.
Question
Why would there be a sequence of points converging to $p$. This statement seems pulled out of thin air... I understand that if a sequence points in $S$ that converges to a point $p$, than the set is closed. But why would there be such a sequence at all?
Edit
On second though, I need a clarification of the entire last quoteblock. I thank you in advance. The text starts with $p\notin S$. How can it conclude with $p\in S$ without it being a contradiction? This makes no sense to me...