I have a question on the Cross Validated Stack Exchange site where I ask how to update the exponential regression coefficient of a vertically translated depreciation curve.
A Cross Validated community member has been kind enough to provide an answer to my question.
The solution has been explained as follows:
...the equation you need to estimate is $$y=21-e^{ax},$$
which is equivalent to
$$21-y=e^{ax}.$$
If you take logarithms both sides (you can do it because $y<21$), then $$log(21-y)=ax.$$
Renaming $log(21-y)=z$, this is of the form $$z=ax,$$
which is a linear regression with no intercept that can be estimated with many standard software packages.
I think I understand everything up to, and including this part:
If you take logarithms both sides (you can do it because $y<21$), then $$log(21-y)=ax.$$
However, as someone who has limited math skills, I'm having difficulty understanding a couple of things:
Why would I want to rename $log(21-y)=z$
--as--$z=ax$ ?How do I estimate the "linear regression with no intercept"?
Could #1 and #2 be explained, in layman's terms?
a. – User1974 Dec 14 '17 at 16:24