In my studies of various geometric inequalities I reached an inequality which seems true (numerically) but I cannot prove it. Let $p$, $q$, and $r$ be real numbers from the interval $(0,1)$. Let's also define the following function $$f({p})=\frac{\sqrt{1-p}}{(2-p)^2}$$ Prove (or disprove) that: $$ \frac{f(p)+f(q)+f(r)}{\sqrt{p q r}}\leq \frac{f(p)}{p\sqrt{p}}+\frac{f(q)}{q\sqrt{q}}+\frac{f(r)}{r\sqrt{r}} $$
I've tried Lagrange multipliers but the resulting equations do not seem tractable.
EDIT: The original question had the condition $p+q+r=2$ which apparently is not necessary, so I dropped it. I can prove that the inequality holds for $p=q$. A possible strategy is to try to establish monotonicity in one of the parameters under certain conditions. Unfortunately I can't manage the calculations.
It is clear that $g(1,1,1)=0$ (and even $g(p,1,1)\geq0$). If one could prove that $\frac{\partial}{\partial p} g(p,q,r)\leq 0$ on $(0,1]^3$, it would be sufficient (using the symmetry in $p$, $q$, $r$) to conclude on $(0,1]^3$, and then I guess the case with one or several of the other variables equal to $0$ could be handled separately.
But the partial derivative does not seem to be very nice, as a maple computation indicates.
– Sebastien B Dec 17 '12 at 13:39