In my notes, I have this version of the Riesz representation theorem: Let $X$ be a separable Hilbert space, and let $\{\phi_n\}_n\subset X$ a countable orthonormal set. Let $\{c_k\}_k\in l^2$ a sequence. There exist an element $x\in X$ such that $\forall k\in\mathbb{N},\ (x\mid\phi_k)=c_k$.
My question is: with these hypothesis, is there a unique $x\in X?$. I think that with the additional hypothesis that $\{\phi_n\}_n$ is complete, then I have the uniqueness: as a matter of fact if there were two elements $x,y\in X$ that verify the theorem, then I would have $$(x-y\mid \phi_k)=0\ \forall k,$$ Which would imply $$x-y\in clos(\{Span(\{\phi_k\}_k\})^\perp=X^\perp,$$ and then $$(x-y\mid x-y)=0\Rightarrow x-y=0.$$ Is this right?