I am posting my derivation since I have been very confused by how the books treat this topic. I hope someone can let me know if my derivation is correct.
I will derive it in the most general manner without assuming things like $x(0)=0$ etc.
Derivation: From the definition of acceleration we have $a=\frac{dv}{dt}$ hence $v=\int a dt =at+c$. Letting $t=0$ gives $c=v(0)$, hence $\boxed{v=v(0)+at}$.
Then using $v=\frac{dx}{dt}$ and integrating we get $x=v(0)t+\frac{1}{2} at^2+c$, and letting $t=0$ we find that $c=x(0)$. Therefore, $\boxed{x=x(0)+v(0) t+\frac{1}{2} at^2}$.
At this point, I am confused about something. Basically, the book goes from here to say that "therefore, $\Delta x = v(0) t+\frac{1}{2} at^2$".
The reason I don't see why this is generally true is because $\Delta x$ isn't automatically the same as $x-x(0)$, because $\Delta x$ simply means change in $x$. It could be $x-x(1)$ for all I know. So why do the authors claim that $x=x(0)+v(0) t+\frac{1}{2} at^2$ is the same as $\Delta x = v(0) t+\frac{1}{2} at^2$.
The most I am seeing is that $\Delta x = x-x(0)$ would indeed be true but only if the initial time, $t_0$ was $0$, ie $t_0=0$. Then "change in position" would generally be $x-x(0)$ (am I right in thinking this?). Otherwise, for all we know, $t_0$ could be nonzero so $\Delta x$ would be $x-x(t_0)$, not $x-x(0)$. Again, I am not sure if I am right about this.
If someone can explain this point it would clear up a lot of the confusion I've been having about the constant acceleration equations.