I am looking to find out how the derivation went in this computation
$$ \frac{1}{n-1} \sum (x_i - \bar{x})^2 = \frac{1}{n-1} \left( \sum x_i^2 - n\bar{x}^2 \right) $$
The exercise belongs to sample distribution section but that's not what bothers me. As you can see there's a square notation inside a summation notation. Now I would take square of sum's here as in $(a-b)^2 = a^2 - 2ab + b^2$ . Yet the result in the picture seems to ommit $2ab$ or probably say simplify. My question is how does he get to such a derivation. Is there any sort of special formula or some point that I am severely missing :/ ?
Does this make the answer clear?
– Stella Biderman Jan 02 '18 at 19:32