The question is as follows:
"Calculate the Kullback-Leibler divergence between two exponential distributions with different scale parameters. When is it maximal?"
I have tried something but I come to a wrong conclusion (at least comparing with Wikipedia).
Let the KL-divergence between the approximating distribution $p_\theta$ and the "true" distribution $p_{\theta_0}$ be defined as
$M(\theta) = P_{\theta_0} \log \frac{P_\theta}{P_{\theta_0}}$
The density of an exponential distribution is given by
$p_\theta(x) = \theta e^{-\theta x}$
hence for the "true" distribution we have
$p_{\theta_0}(x) = \theta_0 e^{-\theta_0 x}$
which gives
$P_{\theta_0}\log \frac{P_\theta}{P_{\theta_0}} = P_{\theta_0} \log \frac{\theta e^{-\theta x}}{\theta_0 e^{-\theta_0 x}}$
which we can simplify to
$P_{\theta_0}\log \frac{P_\theta}{P_{\theta_0}} = P_{\theta_0} \log(\theta) - \log(\theta_0) - (\theta - \theta_0)x$
(This is where I think I might have made a possible mistake)
Because $x$ under the true distribution is exponentially distributed with scale parameter $\theta_0$ its mean is given by $1/\theta_0$ and as such we find that the KL-divergence is
$M(\theta) = \log(\theta) - \log(\theta_0) - (\theta - \theta_0)\frac{1}{\theta_0} =\log(\theta) - \log(\theta_0) -\frac{\theta}{\theta_0}+1$
However, Wikipedia (link) gives the following KL-divergence for two exponential distributions
$M(\theta) =\log(\theta) - \log(\theta_0) +\frac{\theta}{\theta_0}-1$
My answer has the signs flipped, where did I make an error?