In this paper: "ON A RESULT OF G.PÓLYA CONCERNING THE RIEMANN $\xi - FUNCTION$ by DENNIS A. HEJHAL"
the author defines
$$ \theta(x)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-\pi n^{2} x} $$ then he says, in the begining of the second page: "Since $e^{u/2} \theta(e^{2u})$" is even, so is ..."
I Can't seen why $e^{u/2} \theta(e^{2u})$ is even. He is saying that the following function is even
$$e^{u/2}\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-\pi n^{2}e^{2u}}$$
I used mathematica and got the following result

Clearly this is not even. Certainly I'm missing something obvious, or is this a typo? If so what should have been written?
Thanks.
After the remark of Professor Vetor, I produced computations with more terms, and indeed it seems that it is even. Amazing!!
