I'm trying to prove $$ \text{the image of }d_{p}f = \big\{\alpha'(t_{0}) \; \big\vert\; \text{for all smooth }\alpha:((t_{0}-\epsilon), (t_{0}+\epsilon)) \rightarrow M \text{ such that } \alpha(t_{0})= f(p) \big\} $$
For $\quad f:U\rightarrow M$
So far I have one direction:
If $v \in V_{f(p)}$ then $v=\alpha '(t_{0})$ for some smooth $\alpha:((t_{0}-\epsilon , t_{0}+\epsilon)) \rightarrow M$ such that $\alpha(t_{0})=f(p)$. $\alpha'(t_{0})=d_{t_{0}}\alpha(1), d_{t_{0}}\alpha=d_{(f^-1 \cdot \alpha)}f_{(t_{0})} \circ d_{t_{0}}(f^-1 \cdot \alpha)=d_{p}f(d_{t_{0}}(f^-1 \cdot \alpha)(1))=d_{p}f \circ d_{t_{0}}(f^-1 \cdot \alpha)$ So, $\alpha '(t_{0}) \in \text{ the image of } d_{p}f$.
But I'm having trouble showing the other direction.