So this is from one of my homework problems in which we consider the map $f:\mathbb{R}^2\setminus \{(0,0)\} \to \mathbb{R}^2\setminus \{(0,0)\}$ where $f(x,y)=(2x,\frac{1}{2}y)$. Then it goes like "let $\sim$ be the equivalence relation generated by $(x,y)\sim f(x,y)$". However, I don't see why $\sim$ is an equivalence relation since we don't have any of reflexivity, symmetry or transitivity here.
More precisely, reflexivity fails since $(x,y)\neq f(x,y)$ whenever $(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}^2\setminus \{(0,0)\}$.
To check whether we have symmetry for $\sim$, notice that $$f(x,y)\sim (x,y)\iff (x,y)=f^2 (x,y)\iff f \text{ is an involution}$$ the last part of which does not hold.
For transitivity we can only deduce that $f^k (x,y)\sim f^{k+1} (x,y)$ for all integers $k$. But it is not the case that e.g. $f(x,y)\sim f^3 (x,y)$.
Can someone explain what went wrong? Thanks!