Simple example
Let $f: \mathbb R^3 \to \mathbb R$ defined by $f(x, y, z) = x + y + z$
Then the jacobian is $\begin{pmatrix} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} & \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} & \frac{\partial f}{\partial z}\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1\end{pmatrix}$
Let's look at the point $(1, 2, 3)$ specifically, notice that $f(1, 2, 3) = 6$.
The sub matrix $\begin{pmatrix} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 1\end{pmatrix}$ is invertible at $(1, 2, 3)$.
This means that there is an open neighborhood $V \subset \mathbb R$ that contains $1$ and a function $g: V \to \mathbb R^2$ such that $f(x, g(x)) = f(1, 2, 3) = 6$ for all $x \in V$, and in particular, $g(1) = (2, 3)$
Does this help or answer your question on how IFT works? Notice that in this case just like your case, $x,y, z$ could be functions of some other variable $t$. It does not matter, we derive $f$ with respect to $x, y, z$, as you should derive $F$ with respect to $\phi , \psi$. It does not matter that they themselves are functions.