Please consider the image below.
I have a couple of questions from example 10.8.6.
The example mentions that the mapping $\phi: ~f \rightarrow f_U$ is bijective. It's understandable that the function is subjective. I wanted to prove it's injective as well.
Suppose $\exists~~ f_1, f_2~\in~X^*~|~f_{1|U}= f_{2|U} $
We know that in a normed space the ball $b[a ;r) = a+ r b[0;1)= a+r U$ where $U$ is the open unit ball
How do I conclude that the above conditions imply that $f$ is injective i.e $f_1=f_2$?
In the arguments presented, We have that if $a,b \in U$ then $a+b \in U$ as given in the arguments. This might not be always true? Why does the author assume the same?
Thanks for reading!