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so I have a Bernoulli equation here, and I'm not sure why they are integrating from 1 to x. I understand that the initial condition is when x = 1, y = 1, but why are they integrating from 1 to x? They don't make a clear explanation, and I don't even know what to do with the initial condition at this point.

Click for image here

Stuy
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    Where did you see an integral from $1$ to $x$? It is not shown on your screenshot. – projectilemotion Feb 02 '18 at 07:36
  • So you are given initial conditions at $x=1$, and are looking for the value of the unknown function $y$ at argument $x$, and you're wondering why they're integrating from $1$ to $x$ (instead from $-\ln\pi$ to $x+e$, say), did I get that right? –  Feb 02 '18 at 08:10

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