Can someone tell how to do this? I know the answer when there is no additional 1 in it. But with +1, I have no clue. Can someone give insights? I tried using $\gcd(a,b) = \gcd(a, b-a)$ but could not get anywhere. Thanks in advance
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Wilson's theorem may be apply able! – Sufaid Saleel Feb 06 '18 at 15:54
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no number nearby is a prime – Dragon Surfer Feb 06 '18 at 16:08
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yeah,I did no notice it....sorry – Sufaid Saleel Feb 06 '18 at 16:16
6 Answers
Since
$$2016!+1=2016(2015!+1)-2015,$$
Euclid's algorithm yields
$$\gcd(2016!+1,2015!+1)=\gcd(2015!+1,2015)=1$$
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You can do better with $\gcd(a,b) = \gcd(a+kb,b)$ for any integer $k.$
$$\gcd(2016!+1, 2015!+1) = \gcd(2016!+1 -2016(2015!+1), 2015!+1) $$
$$= \gcd(-2015, 2015!+1) =\gcd(-2015, 2015!+1 - 2014!(2015))$$
$$ = \gcd(-2015,1) =1.$$
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I'm letting $k=2014!$. Subtract $k2015=2015!$ from the right number. – B. Goddard Feb 06 '18 at 16:09
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ohhhh ok I got it . Thank you so much. I was able to reduce it till gcd(-2015,2015!+1) . This has been an eye opener – Dragon Surfer Feb 06 '18 at 16:12
So, if integer $d(>0)$ divides both,
$d$ must divide $2016!-2015!=2015!(2016-1)$
Now $(d,2015\cdot2015!)$
divides $(2015!+1,2015\cdot2015!)=1$
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$$\gcd(2016!+1, 2015!+1) = \gcd(2016!+1 - 2016(2015!+1), 2015!+1) \\= \gcd(2015, 2015!+1) = 1$$
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$$ (2015!+1)-2014!\,\overbrace{(2016\,(2015!+1)-(2016!+1))}^{2015}=1 $$ That is, $$ 2014!\,(\color{#C00}{2016!+1})-(2016\cdot2014!-1)\,(\color{#C00}{2015!+1})=1 $$ Therefore, $$ (2016!+1,2015!+1)=1 $$
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