In Atiyah-Macdonalds, Proposition 5.1, for a ring $B$ and a subring $A$, we have
There exists a faithful $A[x]$-module $M$ which is finitely generated as an $A$-module $\Rightarrow$ $x \in B$ is integral over $A$.
The proof uses the fact that $M$ is faithful. Namely, consider the endomorphism $\varphi$ of $M$ that is multiplication by $x$. Since $x M \subseteq M$, and $M$ is faithful, then $x^n + a_1 x^{n-1} + \cdots + a_n = 0$ for suitable $a_i \in A$.
I'm unsure about why in the last statement we uses that $M$ is a faithful module. Thanks for any insights!