I'm given the following statements:
$$M_1\implies O$$$$\neg M_1 \implies Z$$$$(O\lor Z)\implies H$$$$H\implies M_2$$
Then the question is, can you prove whether H is true? Followed up by, now answer the same question via logical resolution.
My solution:
Consider case $M_1$: $$ \nonumber M_1\implies O \implies H $$ Case $\neg M_1$: $$ \neg M_1 \implies Z\implies H. $$ So that $H$ is a tautology.
With resolution:
First, let us rewrite to CNF: \begin{align*} &(\neg O \lor M) \land (\neg Z \lor \neg M_1) \land (\neg H \lor M_1 \lor Z) \land (\neg M_2\lor H) \end{align*} Then for $H$, we simply add the clause $\neg H$ and see if this is satisfiable: \begin{align*} &(\neg O \lor M_1) \land (\neg Z \lor \neg M_1) \land (\neg H \lor M_1 \lor Z) \land (\neg M_2 \lor H)\land \neg H\\ \implies&(\neg O \lor \neg Z) \land (\neg H \lor M_1 \lor Z) \land \neg M_2\\ \implies&(\neg O \lor \neg H \lor M_1) \land \neg M_2\\ \end{align*} This is satisfiable, so $H$ is not a tautology.
But this is of course a contradiction so hence my question: What am I doing wrong?