Assume that all rings are commutative with identity. Let $k$ be a fixed ring with $k$-algebras $\varphi: k \rightarrow R$ and $\tau: k \rightarrow A$. Let $\tau' : R \rightarrow B$ define an $R$-algebra and $\psi: A \rightarrow B$ a morphism of rings so that the square commutes, that is $$ \tau' \varphi = \psi \tau. $$ Suppose further that $\psi: A \rightarrow B$ is surjective. Let $d: A \rightarrow \Omega_{A/k}$ denote the canonical derivation of $A$ over $k$ and let $d': B \rightarrow \Omega_{B/R}$ be the canonical derivation of $B$ over $R$. It is clear to me that the induced map, \begin{align} \Omega_{A/k} &\longrightarrow \Omega_{B/R} \\ fdg &\longmapsto \psi(f) d'\psi(g) \end{align} is surjective. The claim I am having trouble proving is that the kernel of this map is generated by terms $da$ with $\psi(a) \in \tau'(R)$. Questions have been asked about this before, see here, here, and here for example. In the first, an answer is given in terms of the functor of points, which is fine, but I would really like to be able to do this via a diagram chase. The other two questions refer to the same problem, but I still haven't been able to see how a diagram chase concludes this. Is someone able to spell it out to me?
Suppose we had $fdg \mapsto \psi(f) d' \psi(g)$. I'm really not sure what we can conclude about $f$ or $g$ here. The answerer in the third question I linked above claims that we can conclude that either $\psi(f)$ or $\psi(g)$ must be zero, but I see no reason why this must be the case. Can anyone shed some light on this?