If a theorem says $x = p$ only, but an assumption gives us $x = p \lor q$. Can I say they contradict each other and thus the assumption is wrong?
Asked
Active
Viewed 41 times
1
-
What do you mean by "says x=p only"? Do you mean it only says x=p, or that is says that x=p and that x cannot equal anything else? Additional hypotheses don't ever hurt anything. – MPW Mar 02 '18 at 18:20
-
OK, if the question wasn't all that clearly phrased in the beginning, that edit just made it even more confusing! .. what on earth is $x = p \lor q$ as an assumption? I figured that statements were about the possible values of some variable $x$ ... but now $x$ is a logic statement?? – Bram28 Mar 02 '18 at 18:26
-
Maybe give us the theorem and the assumption and we'll tell you (and hopefully explain) if they contradict each other? – kingW3 Mar 02 '18 at 18:29
3 Answers
2
$(p \vee q) \wedge (p \wedge \neg q) = (p \wedge \neg q ) \vee (p \wedge q \wedge \neg q) = (p \wedge \neg q) \vee F = p \wedge \neg q$
By distributing $\wedge$ over $\vee$.
Daniel Donnelly
- 21,342
0
It depends.
What exactly is meant by '$x = p$ or $q$'?
If it means: 'if $x$ takes on the value of either $p$ or $q$, then $x$ is a solution to the problem', then that does indeed contradict the 'only $x=p$ is a solution' statement ... unless, of course, $p$ and $q$ are actually the same.
But if it means 'the solution is either $x=p$ or $x=q$', then that is perfectly compatible with the statement that only $x=p$ is a solution.
Bram28
- 100,612
- 6
- 70
- 118