For a set of universally quantified variables $\{a_1,\dots,a_n\}$, let $\exists_{a_1,\dots,a_n} x. s$ mean that there exists $x$ depending on $a_1,\dots,a_n$ (and no other universally quantified variables) making $s$ true. That is, while evaluating a closed statement containing $\exists_{a_1,\dots,a_n} x. s$, we must find a closed predicate $p(x,a_1,\dots,a_n)$ such that we can replace $\exists_{a_1,\dots,a_n} x. s$ with $\exists!x.p(x,a_1,\dots,a_n) \land \exists x. (p(x,a_1,\dots,a_n) \land s)$ to make the statement true.
For example, $\forall x. \exists_x y. x < y$ is true (with the witness predicate $y=x+1$), but $\forall x. \exists_\emptyset y. x < y$ is false (since the witness predicate would need to fix $y$).
Using the language of arithmetic, does adding this quantifier make the language strictly more expressive, or can we express any statement with this quantifier without using this quantifier.
For example, given $\forall x. \forall y. \exists_x a. \exists_y b. p(x,y,a,b)$, it is not clear how we could express it in normal arithmetic, even if we are given a specific $p$.