No,
$$\mathbb P(X\in dx) = f_X(x)\cdot dx$$
Therefore the probability that $r$-th arrival occures at interval $(t,t+dt)$
$$\tag{1}\label{1}
\mathbb P(T_r\in dt)=f_{T_r}(t)\cdot dt.
$$
By the other side, the event that $r$-th arrival occures at interval $(t,t+dt)$ means that exactly $r-1$ arrivals occure before $t$, and exactly one - on the interval $(t,t+dt)$. This events are independent, and the probability of first one is
$$
\mathbb P(N_t=r-1)=\frac{(\lambda t)^{r-1}}{(r-1)!}e^{-\lambda t},
$$
while the second one has the probability
$$
\mathbb P(N_{dt}=1)=\lambda \cdot dt.
$$
Therefore
$$\tag{2}\label{2}
\mathbb P(T_r\in dt)= \frac{(\lambda t)^{r-1}}{(r-1)!}e^{-\lambda t} \cdot \lambda\cdot dt
$$
Compare (\ref{1}) and (\ref{2}).