I think it is unclear what "includes $40\%$ profit" means:
One interpretation: "$40\%$ of the $70$ is profit"
Assuming that, let $C$ be your cost for the object. We can compute $C$...we are given that $.4\times 70=28$ represented profit so $$C=70-28=42$$
If we reduce the selling price by $10\%$ we get a new selling price of $63$. That would give us a profit of $$P_2=63-42=21$$
Thus the profit decreases from $28$ to $21$ which represents a drop of $7$ which is $25\%$ of the original profit.
Another interpretation "selling at $70$ would give a $40\%$ profit over your cost"
This is more akin to what was done in the original post.
Assuming that then we get, as in the post, that the original cost was $50$ and the profit $20$. If we reduce the selling price to $63$ then the new profit is $13$ which represents a $26\%$ profit over cost (which of course is still $50$). Thus we have a $14\%$ drop in profit in this scenario.