If $x=0$, the limit is $\exp(-m)$.
if $x>0$,
\begin{align}
\lim_{n \to \infty} \left( \frac{m}{n}\right)^x \left( 1-\frac{m}n\right)^{n-x} &=\lim_{n \to \infty}\left(\frac{m/n}{1-m/n}\right)^x \lim_{n \to \infty} \left( 1 - \frac{m}{n}\right)^n\\
&=0\cdot e^{-m} \\
&=0
\end{align}
Edit to answer the edited question:
\begin{align}
\lim_{n \to \infty} \binom{n}{x} \left( \frac{m}{n} \right)^x \left( 1-\frac{m}{n}\right)^{n-x} &= \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!} \frac{m^x}{n^x} \left( 1-\frac{m}{n}\right)^{n-x} \\
&=\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n!}{(n-x)!n^x} \frac{m^x}{x!}\left( 1- \frac{m}{n} \right)^{n-x} \\
&=\frac{m^x}{x!} \lim_{n \to \infty} \left(1-\frac{m}n \right)^{n}\\
&=\frac{m^x}{x!} \exp(-m)
\end{align}