If I understand correctly the following is true:
- $T_{p}(\mathcal{M})$ is a vector space of linear derivations $X_{p}\in T_{p}(\mathcal{M})$, $X_{p}:C^{\infty}(\mathcal{M}) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$
- Given a smooth map $F$ between manifolds $\mathcal{M}$,$\mathcal{N}$, $F:\mathcal{M} \rightarrow \mathcal{N}$ the pushforward of $F$, $F_{*}$ is defined as:
$$ F_{*}:T_{p}(\mathcal{M}) \rightarrow T_{F(p)}(\mathcal{M})\; ; \; (F_{*}(X))(f)=X(f\circ F)$$
Where $ X \in T_{p}(\mathcal{M}), f \in C^{\infty}(\mathcal{M})$
However this definition makes no sense to me. By definition: $f: \mathcal{M}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, so how is the composition $f\circ F$ defined? For the action of $X$ to be defined, we need $f\circ F \in C^{\infty}(\mathcal{M})$,which doesn't seem possible.
So surely we need $f \in C^{\infty}(\mathcal{N})$?, i.e my book has a printing error?