I have a question concerning the Fourier series: I started with the following: $$\cos (\alpha x)= \frac{1}{2}a_0+ \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}a_k\cos(kx).$$ I proved that this series with Fourier coefficients is equal to: $$\cos \alpha x= \frac {\sin \alpha \pi}{\alpha \pi}+ \frac{2 \alpha}{\pi}\sin \alpha \pi \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}(-1)^{k-1}\frac{\cos kx}{k^2-\alpha^2},$$ and $\alpha$ is NOT an integer.
But now I am stuck:
Suppose that $F_N(x)$ is the above Fourier series truncated at the $N$-th term. Can we show that:
$$F_N(\pi) = \cos \alpha \pi+ \frac{2 \alpha}{\pi}\sin \alpha \pi \sum_{k=N+1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k^2-\alpha^2},$$
and hence: $$F_N(\pi) \simeq \cos \alpha \pi + \frac{2\alpha}{N \pi} \sin \alpha \pi?$$
I started by writing:
$$\cos \alpha \pi = \frac {\sin \alpha \pi}{\alpha \pi}+ \frac{2 \alpha}{\pi}\sin \alpha \pi \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}(-1)^{k-1}\frac{\cos k\pi}{k^2-\alpha^2}$$
and $\cos k \pi = (-1)^k$. But now I am completely lost in what to do.. Can someone help me?