Context: Been teaching myself a little algebra - a lot of it makes more sense than in did years ago when I took that course.
Say $F$ is a field and $p,q\in F[x]$ are irreducible. We want to construct a splitting field for $pq$. I gather we do this: Let $F_1=F[x]/(p)$. If $q$ does not factor into linear factors over $F_1$ then let $F_2=F_1[x]/(q)$.
Question: Is it actually true that either $q$ is irreducible over $F_1$ or $q$ factors into linear factors over $F_1$? If so how do you prove it?
My work so far: I've been trying to show that $q$ is irreduclibe over $F_1$. Just realized there are good reasons I've been unable to prove that, for example $F=\Bbb Q$, $p=x^2+1$, $q=x^2+4$. (Or come to think of it it could be that $q=p$...)
Come to think of it, I just now realized we don't really need to know that $q$ is either irreducible or splits over $F_1$; if neither we could just factor $q$ into a product of irreducibles over $F_1$ and proceed. But I gather that's not necessary...
Edit: Realized after posting this that I've been assuming without proof that $p$ actually splits over $F_1$. Doesn't really matter, as above, but is that true?