Would you help me to demonstrate the following lemma:
Consider a real-valued function which is convex on a proper open interval $(a,b)$. If $x, y, z \in (a,b)$ and $x < y < z$, then
$$ \frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x} \leq \frac{f(z)-f(x)}{z-x} \leq \frac{f(z)-f(y)}{z-y} $$
Thank you.