Considering a function like $f(x,y) = x^{1/2} y^{1/2}$
The partial derivative with respect to x, $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \frac{y^{1/2}}{2x^{1/2}} $, is undefined at (0,0), and the limit (x,y) -> (0,0) does not exist.
In this case we should then use the definition (lim h -> 0) if we want to know the value of the derivative at the origin and find that $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = 0 $.
With just the knowledge that the function obtained through differentiation $\frac{y^{1/2}}{2x^{1/2}}$ is undefined at (0,0) can we conclude anything about the original function? Does it tell us that f(x,y) is not differentiable at that point?
I can't off the top of my head think of other cases of continuous, non-piecwise, innocent-looking functions like the one I supplied for which the differentiation does does not equal the partial derivative. My guess is that this can happen because the function f(x,y) becomes not differential on the boundary of its domain. Is there any way to summarise this behaviour?
I couldn't find any questions that had already addressed this directly.