Prove by induction that $a^{m+n} = a^m \times a^n$ and $(a^m)^n = a^{mn}$, for $a \in \mathbb{R}$ and $n, m \in \mathbb{N}$.
Using mathematical induction, we should check that for $m, n = 1$, the conclusion is true. Now, what about $k + 1$ and $j + 1$? Is it true that mathematical induction can be generalised to 2 variables like this?