Given two sets of objects:
- $a = (x, y, z)$ where $x \in X$ and $y \in Q \cup R$ and $z \in P \cup T$
- $b_1 = \{ x \mid x \in X \}$ and $b_2 = \{ y \mid y \in Q \cup R \}$ and $b_3 = \{ z \mid z \in P \cup T \}$
How to go about "proving" that they are different aspects of the same object.
I have never done proofs before and am trying to come up with a practical example outside of the traditional logic examples provided in introductory material. These two sets of objects $\{a\}$ and $\{b_1,b_2,b_3\}$ both define the same thing but in different ways. I'm wondering if there is some sort of mapping I can do to show for sure that in fact these objects are the same. Not sure how to go about this. For instance, in programming these two objects can be shown the same by essentially merging the x, y, z components of $b_1,b_2,b_3$ into $(x, y, z)$, then iterating through each item in the set and comparing the "where" clauses between the new $b$ and the existing $a$. If done with enough detail, there would be a direct mapping between the two "forms" of the same object, which seems like it is close to a proof. So I am wondering how to do this in a mathematical way.