Let $f(x)=\mu y(id^2_1(x+1,y)=0)$ and $g(x)=f(x)z(x)$ where $id^2_1(x,y)=x$ and $z(x)=0$. Then $f(x)$ is defined nowhere and $z(x)=0$ everywhere. Then what is the value of $g$? Is it undefined or just zero?
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1The domain of a function that combines other functions is a subset of the intersection of the other functions' domains. If $f(x)$ is "defined nowhere", then its domain is empty; thus, so is the domain of $g(x)$. – Blue May 03 '18 at 19:02
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Oh I see.. Thanks! – fbg May 04 '18 at 02:09