Let $f: \mathbb{C}\mapsto \mathbb{C}$ be an entire function such that for each $\theta$, $|f(re^{i\theta})|\rightarrow \infty$ as $r\rightarrow \infty$.
a) Does this imply that $|f(z)|\rightarrow \infty$ as $|z|\rightarrow\infty$?
b) Does this imply that $f(z)$ is a polynomial?
I know that if a) is true, then $b)$ is true since a) implies that $\infty$ is a pole for $f(z)$ which is equivalent to $f(z)$ is a polynomial.
However, I don't know how to show that a) is true or construct a counter example.
Edited 5/11:
I am also considering a closely related question:
Let $f: \mathbb{R}^2\mapsto \mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Suppose for all $k\in \mathbb{R}$, we have $|f(x,kx)|\rightarrow \infty$ as $x\rightarrow \infty$.
a) Does this imply that $|f(x,y)|\rightarrow \infty$ as $|(x,y)|\rightarrow\infty$
b) If we require $f$ to be differentiable, does this imply that $|f(x,y)|\rightarrow \infty$ as $|(x,y)|\rightarrow\infty$