Given the function $f_n:[0,1] \to R$ $$f_n(x)=\frac{nx}{(n^2x^2+1)^2}$$
I can show the pointwise convergence $\forall x \in [0,1]: \lim_{n \to \infty} f_n(x) = f(x) = 0$.
To show uniform convergence seems to be much harder to me. I show you what I did below, but it might not be correct (or at least not formal enough). Any help to get a more formal solution would be really appreciate.
$$\sup_{x \in [0,1]} \left| f_n(x) - f(x) \right| = \sup_{x \in [0,1]} \left| f_n(x)\right| = \sup_{x \in [0,1]} \left| \frac{nx}{(n^2x^2+1)^2} \right| = \sup_{x \in [0,1]} \frac{nx}{(n^2x^2+1)^2} = \sup_{x \in [0,1]} \frac{nx}{(nx)^4+2(nx)^2+1} = \sup_{x \in [0,1]} \frac{1}{(nx)^3+2(nx)+\frac{1}{nx}} = \sup_{x \in [0,1]} \frac{1}{(nx)^3+2(nx)+\frac{1}{nx}} \le \sup_{x \in [0,1]} \frac{1}{(nx)^3+2(nx)} \le \frac{1}{(n)^3+2(n)} \underrightarrow{n \to \infty} 0$$
