I'm self study Riemannian Geometry to be able to understand this lecture notes about Mean Curvature Flow. The first chapter is a review of Riemannian Geometry and I'm stuck in the following part:
"Using the isomorphism induced by the metric $g$ we can regard $\nabla f$ also as element of the tangent space, in this case it is called the gradient of $f$. The gradient of $f$ can be identified with a vector in $R^{n+1}$ via the differential $dF$; such a vector is called the tangential gradient of $f$ and is denoted by $\nabla^M f$, given in coordinates by"
$$\nabla^M f = \nabla^i f \frac{\partial F}{\partial x_i} = g^{ij} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_j} \frac{\partial F}{\partial x_i}$$
The word ”tangential” comes from the equivalent definition of $\nabla^M f$ in case $f$ is a function defined on the ambient space $R^{n+1}$. It can be checked that $\nabla^M f$ is the projection of the standard Euclidean gradient $DF$ onto the tangent space of $M$, that is,
$$\nabla^M f = Df - \langle Df, \nu \rangle_e \nu,$$
where $\nu$ is a local choice of unit normal to $M$.
A relevant consideration done in the beginning of the chapter is
We restrict ourselves to manifolds of codimension 1 in an Euclidean ambient space, i.e. we consider a n-dimensional smooth manifold $M$, without boundary, either closed or complete and non-compact and an immersion (or embedding)
$$F: M \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}^{n+1}$$
[...]We denote by $g_{ij} := \langle \frac{\partial F}{\partial x_i}. \frac{\partial F}{\partial x_j} \rangle_e$ the induced metric on $M$, where $\langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle_e$ is the Euclidean scalar product on $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$.
My doubt is what I need to check exactly? I need to show that $g^{ij} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_j} \frac{\partial F}{\partial x_i} = Df - \langle Df, \nu \rangle_e$ or I need prove that the $\textit{gradient}$ of $f$ (which is different of the definition of $\textit{tangential gradient}$ of $f$) is equal to $Df - \langle Df, \nu \rangle_e$ identifying $\textit{gradient}$ of $f$ with the $\textit{tangential gradient}$ of $f$? In the first case, I think the argument is just as it is in this topic, but I don't know how to prooced if the case is the second.
Thanks in advance!
$\textbf{P.S.:}$
Other consideration that maybe be relevant: my background are Linear Algebra, Metric Spaces, Analysis on $\mathbb{R^n}$ and Differential Geometry.
http://www.mat.ufmg.br/~rodney/notas_de_aula/geometria_riemanniana.pdf
written in portuguese.
– George May 23 '18 at 20:53