I'm having trouble understanding the proof, for the following.
Let $R$ be ring, $M$ an $R$-module. If $M$ is flat over $R$ and for any $m$ maximal ideal we get $mM\neq M$, then for any $R$-module $N$, if $N\otimes_R M=0$, then $N=0$.
In the proof we let $N\neq 0$ be a $R$-module and choose $x\in N-\{{0}\}$. We have a surjection $f: R\rightarrow Rx$ so we get $R/Ker(f)\cong Rx$, which means we have a exact sequence $$0\longrightarrow Ker(f)\longrightarrow R\longrightarrow Rx\longrightarrow 0$$ In the proof they then state that since $M$ is flat and $Rx\subset N$ then $R/Ker(f)\otimes_R M\cong Rx\otimes_R M$ with a injection $Rx\otimes_R M\rightarrow N\otimes_R M$.
I'd say that $R/Ker(f)\otimes_R M\cong Rx\otimes_R M$ since $$0\longrightarrow Ker(f)\otimes_R M\longrightarrow R\otimes_R M\longrightarrow Rx\otimes_R M\longrightarrow 0$$ is exact by using that $M$ is flat (is this correct?), but I don't see how we get the injection $Rx\otimes_R M\rightarrow N\otimes_R M$?