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Given $f: \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}$ such that for all real $y$, $t \mapsto f(t,y)$ is a polynomial function and for all real $x$, $t \mapsto f(x,t)$ is a polynomial function, is it necessarily true that $(x,y) \mapsto f(x,y)$ is a polynomial function?

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