I am attaching a solved example for solving an IVP for converting a second order IVP to first order IVP. I Know it may appear simple but I am unable to understand the circled steps. Any help towards explaining the same would be really appreciated

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SAK
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We are given:
$$y'' = y' + 1\\y(0) = 1, y'(0) = 1$$
We can proceed as follows
- Let $y_1 = y \implies y_1' = y' = y_2$
- Let $y_2 = y' \implies y_2' = y'' = y'+ 1 = y_2 + 1$
Note that the given initial conditions would similarly follow as
- $y(0) = 1 \implies y_1(0) = 1$
- $y'(0) = 1 \implies y_2(0) = 1$
The new system can be written as
$$\tag 1 Y' = \begin{bmatrix} y_1' \\ y_2' \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} y_2 \\ 1 + y_2 \end{bmatrix}$$
Taking the derivative of $(1)$
$$\tag 2 Y'' = \begin{bmatrix} y_1'' \\ y_2'' \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} y_2' \\ y_2' \end{bmatrix}$$
From our original substitutions, we have that $y_2' = 1 + y_2$, so we can rewrite this as
$$\tag 3 Y'' = \begin{bmatrix} y_1'' \\ y_2'' \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 + y_2 \\ 1 + y_2 \end{bmatrix}$$
Moo
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1Thank you very much.....understood.....so closing it with green tick mark – SAK Jun 12 '18 at 12:31