I understand the formal definition of Big-O: $f(n)$ is $O(g(n))$ if there exist constants $N$ and $c$ such that for $n>N$ we have that $f(n) \leq c\cdot g(n)$. However, the problem is that, by this definition, $2n+1$ is $O(n^2)$ even though it is more precise to say that it is $O(n)$.
So, to resolve this, is it possible to modify the definition as such: $f(n)$ is precisely $O(g(n))$ if there exist $N$ and $k$ such that $f(n) \leq k\cdot g(n)$, and $f(n) \geq k^{-1}g(n)$, for $n>N$? Are there any possible issues with this definition?