Is the difference between "there exists" and "there is" purely stylistic? The book I am using uses "there is" the majority of the time, except for very few cases of "there exists," so I wanted to make sure.
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This is a stylistic choice. Similar to how one may replace "for all" with "for each" or "for any."
ervx
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I believe this is only the case if you interpret "for any" to mean "for any one," which I fell would be a misinterpretation. – ervx Jun 20 '18 at 18:38
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