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Evaluate $\int_0^\infty \frac{\sqrt x}{1+x^4} dx$

I think I'm on the right path, but I'm not getting the right answer (which is $\frac{\pi}{4 \cos(\frac{\pi}{8})}$). Here is what I have done:

Define $f(z) = \frac{\sqrt z}{1+z^4}$ on the upper half circle $\alpha$. The singularities inside this half circle are $w_1 = e^{\frac{\pi i}{4}}$ and $w_2 = -e^{\frac{-\pi i}{4}} = - \bar{w_1}$.

Then the integral can be calculated as follows:

$$\oint_\alpha f(z) \,dz = 2\pi i (Res(f,w_1)+Res(f,w_2))$$

Calculating residues:

$Res(f,w_1) = \frac{\sqrt w_1}{4w_1^3} = \frac{e^{\frac{- \pi i}{8}}}{4i}$

$Res(f,w_2) = \frac{\sqrt w_2}{4w_2^3} = \frac{e^{\frac{ \pi i}{8}}}{4}$

From this, I can already see that this won't give me the right answer, since the final answer does not contain $i$ and my $cos$ is in the numerator ($e^{\frac{- \pi i}{8}} + e^{\frac{ \pi i}{8}} = 2cos(\frac{\pi}{8}))$

Some help would be appreciated! May be I made some mistakes calculating the residues?

Katie
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    You shouldn't be on the right path. You should be on the right contour! – mathworker21 Jun 21 '18 at 09:54
  • But am I on the right contour? :') – Katie Jun 21 '18 at 09:56
  • Yes you need to consider contour, that it is a Jordan curve and then to check which of the residues are inside the contour. – mathreadler Jun 21 '18 at 09:56
  • Have you calculated the integral along the parts of the contour which are not the ones you want? I.e. the half circle and negative portion of real line? – mathreadler Jun 21 '18 at 09:57
  • @mathreadler not sure what you mean, are you implying that I should not use the upper half circle? – Katie Jun 21 '18 at 10:00
  • Based on my experience on this site, a master for such exercises will soon post a perfect answer. – Peter Jun 21 '18 at 10:02
  • I think you should check more carefully what the Cauchy residue theorem says https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Residue_theorem it is integral along a whole closed contour which sums to enclused residues. So you will need to calculate the parts you are not interested in and to subtract them. Don't wait for a perfect master. Read the theorem! – mathreadler Jun 21 '18 at 10:03
  • @mathworker21 Superb word play! – Peter Jun 21 '18 at 10:04
  • Actually I'm still not sure what I'm doing wrong. Is it that I have to use a quarter circle (since the integral runs from $0$ to $\infty$? On the wikipedia site (or my notes) I can't seem to find anything on substracting the parts "I'm not interested in"... – Katie Jun 21 '18 at 10:22
  • Can I also do the integral by using a contour over a quarter circle? – Katie Jun 21 '18 at 17:33
  • @Katie you can! It is even better than a semi half contour, since you will only deal with one residue. You can use the same steps I did below. – Shashi Jun 21 '18 at 18:20

3 Answers3

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Hint: The important thing is that when you choose a semicircle contour to evaluate a real integral, you must make sure that the integral along the semi-circular portion must tend to zero as you make the radius tend to infinity. This is necessary and sufficient that your answer is equal to the sum of residue.

Showing that these parts go to zero as $R\to\infty$ is usually trivial, and when it is not trivial it almost always amounts to using Jordan's lemma.

dezdichado
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Hint:

$\int^\infty_{-\infty} \frac{\sqrt{x}}{1+x^4} dx = \int^\infty_{0} \frac{\sqrt{x}}{1+x^4} dx + \int^0_{-\infty} \frac{\sqrt{x}}{1+x^4} dx $

Are you accounting for the last term?

Y-man
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  • OK, so for the first integral I can use what I already did (residues inside the upper half circle) and then substract the value for the last integral (using a quarter circle?)? – Katie Jun 21 '18 at 10:33
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    If you want, don't know if that will work. I would do a variable change to $y = -x$ in the last integral. – Y-man Jun 21 '18 at 10:36
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$\newcommand{\Res}{\text{Res}}\newcommand{\Log}{\operatorname{Log}}$Let me start with the good news: your calculation of the residues are right!

You have taken the upper semi circle contour. I assume you use the principle value of the logarithm , i.e. $\Log(\cdot)$ , to define the complex square root function. After letting $R\to\infty$ everything goes alright (use the ML-lemma), so that you end up with: \begin{align} \int_{-\infty}^0 \frac{\sqrt[]{z}}{z^4+1}\,dz+\int_{0}^\infty \frac{\sqrt[]{t}}{t^4+1}\,dt = 2\pi i\sum_{i=1,2} \Res_{w=\omega_i}\frac{\sqrt[]{w}}{w^4+1} \end{align} I put there $z$ in the first integral to make sure you see that as a complex integral. Now notice that on the negative real line one has: $$\sqrt[]{z}=e^{\frac 1 2 \Log(z)} = e^{\frac 1 2 \left(\ln |z| - i\pi \right)} = i \sqrt[]{|z|}$$ So we may write: \begin{align} \int_{-\infty}^0 \frac{\sqrt[]{z}}{z^4+1}\,dz = i\int_{-\infty}^0 \frac{\sqrt[]{|t|}}{t^4+1}\,dt = i\int_{0}^\infty \frac{\sqrt[]{t}}{t^4+1}\,dt \end{align} Hence by filling in the residues one gets: \begin{align} (1+i) \int_{0}^\infty \frac{\sqrt[]{t}}{t^4+1}\,dt = 2\pi i \left(\frac{\exp(-i\pi /8)}{i4} +\frac{\exp(i\pi/8)}{4} \right) \end{align} You say this does not look like the answer you must have? Well, notice that $\exp(-i\pi/8) = \exp(-i\pi/2) \exp(3i\pi/8) = -i \exp(3i\pi/8)$ we get rid off the $i$ in the denominator and get: \begin{align} (1+i) \int_{0}^\infty \frac{\sqrt[]{t}}{t^4+1}\,dt &= 2\pi i \left(-\frac{\exp(i3\pi /8)}{4} +\frac{\exp(i\pi/8)}{4} \right) \\ &= 2\pi i \exp(2i\pi/8) \left(-\frac{\exp(i\pi /8)}{4} +\frac{\exp(-i\pi/8)}{4} \right)\\ &= \pi i \exp(i\pi/4) (-i \sin\left (\frac \pi 8\right) ) \\ &= \pi \sin\left (\frac \pi 8\right) \frac{(1+i)}{\sqrt[]{2}}\\ \end{align} Deviding both sides with $(1+i)$ yields: \begin{align} \int_{0}^\infty \frac{\sqrt[]{t}}{t^4+1}\,dt = \frac{\pi \sin\left (\frac \pi 8\right)}{\sqrt[]{2}} \end{align} You still say this is not the same answer as it is written there? Well, \begin{align} \frac{\pi \sin\left (\frac \pi 8\right)}{\sqrt[]{2}} = \frac{\pi \sin\left (\frac \pi 8\right)\cos\left (\frac \pi 8\right)}{\sqrt[]{2} \cos\left (\frac \pi 8\right)} = \frac{\pi \sin\left (\frac \pi 4\right)}{2\sqrt[]{2}\cos\left (\frac \pi 8\right)} = \frac{\pi }{4\cos\left (\frac \pi 8\right)} \end{align} I don't think it is a problem you get a different looking representation of the same answer. Don't let that stop you from doing things.You have seen that I just did some simplifications that I am comfortable with and I still got an answer that did not look like the right answer. I mean, who could know beforehand how one should simplify things to get to that particular form? I advice you to look up in WolframAlpha if you sometimes get something that looks different and it is always a nice exercise to get from the one form to the other form. Have a nice day!

Shashi
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  • Thanks a lot! However, shouldn't the very first + sign, not be a = sign? – Katie Jun 21 '18 at 16:46
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    @Katie no because you have a path $[-R, R] $ and then you take $R\to\infty$, right? Then you end up with an integral over $(-\infty, \infty) $. I split that up in two pieces. Surely as I said I have neglected the integral over the circular path, since by ML it vanishes as $R\to\infty$. – Shashi Jun 21 '18 at 16:49