You seem to be working with the $\|\cdot\|_2$ norm.
You're on the right track. Since $Y = \operatorname{span}\{t \mapsto t+1\}$ is a finite-dimensional inner product space, it is a Hilbert space. Hence a functional $f : Y \to \Bbb R$ can be written as $f(x) = \langle x, y_1\rangle$ for some $y_1 \in Y$, by the Riesz representation theorem.
We claim that $F : C[0,1] \to \Bbb R$ given by $F(x) = \langle x, y_1\rangle$ is the unique Hahn-Banach extension of $f$.
Namely, clearly $F$ extends $f$ and $\|F\| = \|y_1\|_2 = \|f\|$. Assume that $G : C[0,1] \to \Bbb R$ is also a Hahn-Banach extension of $f$. $C[0,1]$ is not a Hilbert space but its completion $L^2[0,1]$ is a Hilbert space, so there exists $z \in L^2[0,1]$ such that $G(x) = \langle x, z\rangle$ for all $x \in C[0,1]$.
Let $z = z_1 + z_2$ where $z_1 \in Y, z_2 \in Y^\perp$.
Now for all $y \in Y$ we have
$$\langle y, y_1\rangle = f(y) = G(y) = \langle y, z\rangle = \langle y, z_1\rangle \implies y_1 = z_1$$
because $G$ extends $f$.
On the other hand
$$\|y_1\|_2^2 = \|f\|^2 = \|G\|^2 = \|z\|_2^2 = \|z_1\|_2^2 + \|z_2\|_2^2 = \|y_1\|_2^2 + \|z_2\|_2^2$$
hence $z_2 = 0$ so we conclude $z = y$ and hence $G = F$.