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Wolfram Alpha says that the domain of $$f(x) = \large \ln(1+x)^{\sin(x)}$$

is $x \gt 0$. I can't figure out how we come up with this restrictions. Please help.

Zev Chonoles
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Assuming we agree on having positive bases for exponential functions, it thus must be

$$\log(1+x)>0\Longleftrightarrow 1+x>1\Longleftrightarrow x>0\,$$

just as WA said...

DonAntonio
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  • What about when $x = -\pi$? Technically, $f(-\pi) = 1$ (because $(a+bi)^0 = 1$). – George V. Williams Jan 21 '13 at 18:53
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    If $x = -\pi$, then $1+x = 1-\pi < 0$, so its logarithm is not even defined. – Javier Jan 21 '13 at 18:55
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    No, then its logarithm is complex ($\ln(1 - \pi) \approx 0.7615 + i\pi$), and $\sin(-\pi) = 0$, and $(0.7615 + i\pi)^0 = 1$. Do we deal with this case when discussing domains? – George V. Williams Jan 21 '13 at 18:57
  • That's a stretch, @GeorgeV.Williams: unless specifically asked by the OP, we always assume the "usual" functions are real ones. In particular here, the usual notation for the complex logarithm is "Log" and not "log" or even less, as the OP wrote, "ln". – DonAntonio Jan 21 '13 at 18:59
  • @DonAntonio, thanks for clearing that up for me. – George V. Williams Jan 21 '13 at 19:01