You are correct. You can biject $\mathbb{Q}$ with $\mathbb{N}$, biject $P(\mathbb{N})$ with $\mathbb{R}$, and biject $\mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}$ with $\mathbb{R}$.
In particular, you can biject $P(\mathbb{Q}) \times \mathbb{R}$ with $P(\mathbb{N}) \times \mathbb{R}$ with $\mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}$ with $\mathbb{R}$ with $P(\mathbb{N})$ with $P(\mathbb{Q})$.
This means that they have the same cardinalities, as you expected/asserted.
(The line above can be shortened a bit by observing $P(\mathbb{Q})$ bijects with $\mathbb{R}$.)
Each of the other sets has cardinality at least $|P(\mathbb{R})|$, which is strictly greater than $|\mathbb{R}|$.
(In fact, each of the remaining sets has cardinality $|P(\mathbb{R})|$.)