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This might be a very dumb question, but I have googled around and looked in asymptotic analysis reference texts and cannot seem to find what I am looking for. So here we go:

Suppose I know that there exists some $x$ such that $xn \sim n^2$ as $n \to \infty$. Can I conclude that $x \sim n$?

H. Löw
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  • Welcome to Maths SX! I suppose $x$ is an expression depending on $n$? – Bernard Jul 04 '18 at 16:58
  • There are various equivalence relations that you might have in mind. In any case a proof will proceed (perhaps indirectly) from the definition of that equivalence, so stating it in the Question is certainly expeditious. – hardmath Jul 04 '18 at 16:59

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Yes, because equivalence is compatible with multiplication, so $$xn\sim n^2\quad\text{and}\quad \frac1n\sim\frac1n\quad\text{imply}\quad xn\cdot \frac1n=x\sim n^2\frac1n=n.$$

Bernard
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