Consider the linear recurrence relation $x_{n+2}=ax_{n+1}-x_n$, where $a\in\mathbb{C}\setminus\{-2,2\}$ and $x_n\in\mathbb{C}$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$. The general solution for this is
$$x_n=A\left(\frac{a+\sqrt{a^2-4}}{2}\right)^n+B\left(\frac{a-\sqrt{a^2-4}}{2}\right)^n$$ for $A,B\in\mathbb{C}$.
According to Wikipedia, $\lim_{n\to\infty} x_n=0$ for all $x_1,x_2\in\mathbb{C}$ if and only if $$\left|\frac{a+\sqrt{a^2-4}}{2}\right|<1\mbox{ and }\left|\frac{a-\sqrt{a^2-4}}{2}\right|<1.$$ In that case, of course $\lim_{n\to\infty} x_n=0$.
Question: How do I prove that equivalence? The implication $\Leftarrow$ is clear but how do we prove the implication $\Rightarrow$?
Comment: If you know that this proof is in a book, paper, notes, etc, and you do not want to spend the time typing it you can just cite it and once I check it I will consider it as an answer.
According to Wikipedia ...What is the exact wording there? It does not necessarily hold true as posted e.g. that's not the general solution if $a=\pm 2$, or if $B=0$ the 2nd inequality is not required etc. – dxiv Jul 08 '18 at 22:58