I read the following about Laplace transforms:
The time domain $t$ will contain all those functions $F(t)$ whose Laplace transform exists, whereas the frequency domain $s$ contains all the images $\mathcal{L} \{ F(t) \}$.
I find this explanation suspect. The time domain is $t$ -- so how does it make sense to say that it "contains" the function $F(t)$? I don't understand how it makes mathematical sense to say that a domain $t$ "contains" a function $F(t)$? My understanding is that $F(t)$ would be the codomain, whereas $t$ would be the domain (time domain). And I would argue the same with the frequency domain $s$ and $\mathcal \{ F(t) \}$.
Can someone please clear this up?