The following is a supposedly true claim, and I came across it in the Coursera course Introduction to Mathematical Thinking (Assignment 7/7) as part of an explanation by the instructor to the proof why $\sqrt{3}$ was irrational. The line that perplexes me goes like this:
If 3 divides the square of some x ∈ ℕ without a remainder, then 3 also divides x without a remainder.
How do we know that this is true for all squared natural numbers?