Context: A First Course in Complex Analysis by Matthias Beck, Gerald Marchesi, Dennis Pixton, and Lucas Sabalka Exer 9.1, 9.3 (asked about here)
Question
From (here): How do we have that $$\lim_{z \rightarrow z_o} f(z) \in \mathbb{C} \ \text{for removable singularity} \ z_0 \tag{1}$$ under the characterisation that $f$ has a removable singularity if $$\lim_{z \rightarrow z_o} (z-z_0) f(z) = 0 \tag{2}$$?
Update: Attempt is now moved to answer.
Some intuition:
$(2) \Leftarrow (1)$
- If $L \in \mathbb{C}$, then $\lim_{z \rightarrow z_o} (z-z_0) f(z) = \lim_{z \rightarrow z_o} (z-z_0) \lim_{z \rightarrow z_o} f(z) = (0)(L) = 0$
$(2) \Rightarrow (1)$
If $L = \infty$, then $\lim_{z \rightarrow z_o} (z-z_0) f(z) = 0 \cdot \infty$, indeterminate.
If $L$ dne, then $\lim_{z \rightarrow z_o} (z-z_0) f(z)$ dne.
Upon reflection, this actually seems like a simple complex extension of a simple elementary real analysis proof.