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I have a system of one NLS equation and one Poisson equation:

$$ i \dfrac{\partial u}{\partial Z} + \dfrac{1}{2}\nabla^2 u + 2 \ \Phi \ u = 0 \\ \nu \nabla^2 \, \Phi - 2 \, q \, \Phi + 2 \mid u \mid^2 \: = \: 0\\ $$

Where u is an envelope function, q and $\nu$ are scalars, and $\Phi$ is a direction function (the angle that the solution takes as it travels through the space).

The "Lagrangian formulation" for this system is:

$$ L \ = \ i \big(u^* u_Z - u u_Z^* \big) \ - \ \mid \nabla u \mid^2 \ + \ 4 \, \Phi \mid u \mid^2 - \ \nu \mid \nabla \Phi \mid^2 - 2 \, q \, \Phi^2 $$

I understand that the Lagrangian is $$ L \left( u, \dot{u} \right) \, = T \left( \dot{u} \right) - V\left( u \right)$$

But I don't see how that, applied to my system, gives the result. For instance, how is a partial derivative suddenly turned into a difference of products involving complex conjugates?

  • It may have something to do with the treatments in this article: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heisenberg_picture, that would give $i$ times a commutator looking expression. What kind of problem does this relate to, is it quantum mechanical? – Benedict W. J. Irwin Aug 10 '18 at 15:12
  • Is there a term like $q |\Phi|^2$ missing in the Lagrangian? My guess is, that the Lagrangian density needs to be a function mapping $(u,\Phi)$ into the reals, therefore one can not use $i u \cdot u_Y$ and a term like $\text{Im}(u \cdot u_Z)$ is used instead. – Steffen Plunder Aug 10 '18 at 15:21

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Interpretation of the Lagrangian.

I will use $t$ instead of $Z$ and denote $u_Z$ by $\dot u$, since the equations look more familar in this case.

We define $\mathcal L(u,\nabla u, \dot u, \Phi, \nabla \Phi, \dot \Phi)$ via $$ \mathcal L = \ i \big(u^* \dot u - u \dot u^* \big) - | \nabla u |^2 + 4\Phi | u |^2 - \nu | \nabla \Phi |^2 + 2q |\Phi|^2. $$

Hamiltons principle from classical field theory now implies that we look for stationary points of $$S(u,\Phi) = \int_{\Omega_T} \mathcal L(u,\nabla u, \dot u, \Phi, \nabla \Phi, \dot \Phi) \mathrm{dvol}.$$

($\Omega_T$ denotes the domain of $u$ and $\Phi$, for example $[0,T] \times \Omega$.)

The Euler-Lagrange-Equations are given as

$$ \frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial u} - \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dt} \frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial \dot u} - \sum_i \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm d X_i}\frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial \mathrm D_i u} = 0$$

and

$$ \frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial \Phi} - \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dt} \frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial \dot \Phi} - \sum_i \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm d X_i}\frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial \mathrm D_i \Phi} = 0.$$

The principle idea behind these equations is partial integration, basically the same as here: energy minimization.

Here $\mathrm D_i u = \frac{\partial u}{\partial X_i}$ and the derivative $\frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial \mathrm D_i u}$ denotes the derivative of $\mathcal L$ with respect to the components of $\nabla u$ in $\mathcal L$. (To make this mathematical sound, the concept of jets is helpful, but I don't want to go into this. Basically, we consider $u$, $\dot u$ and $\nabla u$ to be independent when computing the derivatives.)

The rest is 'just' a computational task...

The influence of $i (u^* u_Z - u u_Z^*)$?

In my notation, this term is denoted by $i (u^* \dot u - u \dot u^*)$. Let me split real and imaginary parts, $u = v + iw$, then this term becomes $$\begin{align} i \left( (v-iw)(\dot v + i \dot w) - (v+iw)(\dot v - i \dot w)\right) &= 2 i ~ \text{Im}( (v-iw)(\dot v + i\dot w) ) \\ &= -2 ( v \dot w - w \dot u )\\ &= 2 ( w \dot v - v \dot w ). \end{align}$$

This term enters the Euler-Lagrange equations trough $$ \begin{align} \frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial u} - \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dt} \frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial \dot u} &= \frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial v} - \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dt} \frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial \dot v} + i \frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial w} - i\frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dt} \frac{\partial \mathcal L}{\partial \dot w}\\ &= -2 \dot w - \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm d t}(2w) + i (2 \dot v - i \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm d t}( -2 w ) )\\ &= 4i \frac{\partial u}{\partial t}. \end{align}$$

The rest...

The complete computation is a bit to long for me to write down here, but not complicated anymore. Therefore, I just demonstrate one step.

For example a term like $\mathcal L_1 = |\nabla \Phi|^2$ leads to the term $$-\sum_i \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm d X_i}\frac{\partial \mathcal L_1}{\partial \mathrm D_i \Phi} = -\text{DIV}( 2 \nabla \Phi ) = -2 \Delta \Phi$$ in the Euler-Lagrange equations.

At the end, the first equation is divided by $4$ and the second equation by $2$.

Steffen Plunder
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  • Thank you for your work! I see how, if you choose the Lagrangian to start, you can get the terms in the original system: using your example, running $$\nu \mid \nabla \Phi \mid^2$$ through the Euler-Lagrange equations will indeed return $$-2 \nu , \nabla^2 \Phi $$ What I am trying to figure out is how you can derive the Lagrangian, term-by-term, from the original system. If someone gives me the system, and then asks me to calculate the Lagrangian, how do I do that? For one thing, it looks like I am somehow combining $$2 \Phi u$$ and $$2 \mid u \mid^2$$ to get $$ 4 \Phi \mid u \mid^2 $$. – Cassandra Chaya Khan Aug 12 '18 at 18:22
  • Somehow the problem is similar to finding a primitive function! There you want to find $F$ sucht that $F' = f$, to find a Lagrangian you want to find $\mathcal L$ such that the Euler-Lagrange equations are correct. Hence I assume that educated guesses or physical insigth are the best approach. – Steffen Plunder Aug 12 '18 at 18:42
  • I don't know enough about the physics of your system. It looks like some quantum theory and electro-mechanics? Why are you interested in the Lagrangian? (It might be easier to prove existence, without explicitly computing it. There are some integrability Lemmas also for the infinite dimensional case.) – Steffen Plunder Aug 12 '18 at 18:52
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    Good morning! I'm modeling 1) the propagation of a light pulse 2) through a nematic liquid crystal that is 3) subjected to an external electric field. So yes, the NLS equation certainly has some quantum flavor to it, and there are electro-mechanics as well. Sala, F., et al, 'Bending reorientational solitons with modulated alignment,' (Journal of the Optical Society of America B/ Vol. 34, No. 12 / December 2017) gives a thorough overview -- if you'd like to see a bit of what is happening in the field. – Cassandra Chaya Khan Aug 13 '18 at 07:24